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Can a Catholic use the KJV bible with its Shakespearean prose?
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Not really, it's a bad translation.
It deliberately omits the "full of grace" phrase from Luke. Even though the Greek uses a form of the same word used for grace literally everywhere else in the bible.
Because it's theologically inconvenient to explain what Mary being full of grace actually means, seeing as the Catholic explanation is correct.
That's just one example. Also it falls into the trap of using the Masoretic text, which was maliciously edited, so the quotes from the OT in the NT are often incorrect specifically in the KJV.
Otherwise fine for personal reading though IDK why you wouldn't use the Douay-Rhiems, studying early modern English especially, or to use in a debate with KJV only types so they can't fallaciously object.
Honestly though, you shouldn't even be debating them formally without the authorization of your bishop.
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No Christian should use KJV because as noted >>18326132 it is ridiculously outdated.
Even if it weren't, it would depend on the Masoretic Text. Why fight the Jew (and as a Christian, you must) on the Jew's terms of engagement?
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>>18325687
>Can a Catholic use the KJV bible with its Shakespearean prose?
Sure, why not? It makes no difference, the Catholic can't understand the Bible no matter which translation he uses. He has to abandon Catholicism i.e. accept Jesus as his savior, and then the KJV will profit him tremendously. Otherwise its just a waste of time.
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>>18326201
>doesn't know 4Q71b Jeremiah preLXX
>doesn't know the prayer of Nabunai
>doesn't know the "sons of god" 4QDeutj
>doesn't know 4QSam_a about Nahash
>doesn't know the height of Goliath
>but he sure knows Judges 6:7-10... which isn't in 4QJudga
ngmi
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>>18325697
>Shakespeare wrote verse, not prose
Big swaths of his plays are in prose instead of blank verse or other metered lines. Lower class characters almost always speak in prose and others use it as well for ordinary dialogue. It’s like operas when people talk between the singing.